I struggled a bit setting up a VLAN on a virtual machine this week and came to the following conclusion: If the hardware node has no VLAN set up, and the VM is configured with a VLAN adapter (inside the VM), the VM can't communicate. If the hardware node does have a VLAN set up, and the VM is also configured for a VLAN, the VM can't communicate. If the hardware node does have a VLAN set up, and the VM is not configured for a VLAN, the VM can communicate successfully over that adapter. I am wondering if that is the intent, or a bug? In my specific case I used pfSense 2.2 and its built in functionality to create a VLAN on any of its detected NICs. The distinction, it seems to me, is that if the VM has the VLAN set up, the VLAN would move with the VM to another host. Otherwise we would need to create the VLAN and a Virtual Network on all hosts, so that the VM could join its card to the correct Virtual Network and hence the VLAN.